[2024] Pass Symantec 250-561 Premium Files Test Engine pdf - Free Dumps Collection
New 2024 Realistic 250-561 Dumps Test Engine Exam Questions in here
NEW QUESTION # 10
What must an administrator check prior to enrolling an on-prem SEPM infrastructure into the cloud?
- A. Clients are running SEP 14.1.0 or later
- B. Clients are running SEP 14.2 or later
- C. Clients are running SEP 14.0.1 or late
- D. Clients are running SEP 12-6 or later
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 11
What are two (2) benefits of a fully cloud managed endpoint protection solution? (Select two)
- A. Increased visibility
- B. Increased content update frequency
- C. Reduced network usage
- D. Reduced 3rd party licensing cost
- E. Reduced database usage
Answer: D,E
NEW QUESTION # 12
An administrator selects the Discovered Items list in the ICDm to investigate a recent surge in suspicious file activity. What should an administrator do to display only high risk files?
- A. Apply a list control
- B. Apply a search modifier
- C. Apply a list filter
- D. Apply a search rule
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 13
Which term or expression is utilized when adversaries leverage existing tools in the environment?
- A. opportunistic attack
- B. living off the land
- C. script kiddies
- D. file-less attack
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 14
What does an end-user receive when an administrator utilizes the Invite User feature to distribute the SES client?
- A. An email with link to register on the ICDm user portal
- B. An email with the SES_setup.zip file attached
- C. An email with a link to a KB article explaining how to install the SES Agent
- D. An email with a link to directly download the SES client
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 15
Which SES advanced feature detects malware by consulting a training model composed of known good and known bad fries?
- A. Reputation
- B. Artificial Intelligence
- C. Signatures
- D. Advanced Machine Learning
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 16
Which Endpoint > Setting should an administrator utilize to locate unmanaged endpoints on a network subnet?
- A. Discover Endpoints
- B. Discover and Deploy
- C. Endpoint Enrollment
- D. Device Discovery
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 17
After editing and saving a policy, an administrator is prompted with the option to apply the edited policy to any assigned device groups.
What happens to the new version of the policy if the administrator declines the option to apply it?
- A. The new version of the policy is added to the "in progress" list
- B. The policy display is returned to edit mode
- C. An unassigned version of the policy is created
- D. The new version of the policy is deleted
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 18
Which file should an administrator create, resulting Group Policy Object (GPO)?
- A. Symantec__Agent_package__32-bit.msi
- B. Symantec__Agent_package_x64.zip
- C. Symantec__Agent_package_x64.exe
- D. Symantec__Agent_package_x64.msi
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 19
Which Security Control dashboard widget should an administrator utilize to access detailed areas for a given security control ?
- A. Latest Tasks
- B. Learn More
- C. Quick Links
- D. More Info
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 20
Which alert rule category includes events that are generated about the cloud console?
- A. System
- B. Diagnostic
- C. Security
- D. Application Activity
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 21
Wh.ch Firewall rule components should an administrator configure to block facebook.com use during business hours?
- A. Application, Host(s), and Network Service
- B. Action, Hosts(s), and Schedule
- C. Host(s), Network Interface, and Network Service
- D. Action, Application, and Schedule
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which SES security control protects against threats that may occur in the Impact phase?
- A. Antimalware
- B. Device Control
- C. IPS
- D. Firewall
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 23
Which Firewall Stealth setting prevents OS fingerprinting by sending erroneous OS information back to the attacker?
- A. Enable OS fingerprint protection
- B. Enable OS fingerprint masqueradi
- C. Disable OS fingerprint detection
- D. Disable OS fingerprint profiling
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 24
The ICDm has generated a blacklist task due to malicious traffic detection. Which SES component was utilized to make that detection?
- A. Reputation
- B. IPS
- C. Firewall
- D. Antimalware
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which statement best defines Machine Learning?
- A. A program that learns from experience to optimize the output of a task.
- B. A program that require data to perform a task.
- C. A program that teams from observing other programs.
- D. A program that needs user input to perform a task.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 26
Which IPS Signature type is Primarily used to identify specific unwanted traffic?
- A. Malcode
- B. Attack
- C. Probe
- D. Audit
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 27
What characterizes an emerging threat in comparison to traditional threat?
- A. Emerging threats are more sophisticated than traditional threats.
- B. Emerging threats are undetectable by signature based engines.
- C. Emerging threats use new techniques and 0-day vulnerability to propagate.
- D. Emerging threats requires artificial intelligence to be detected.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 28
What is the primary issue pertaining to managing roaming users while utilizing an on-premise solution?
- A. The endpoint is more exposed to threats
- B. The endpoint is missing timely policy update
- C. The endpoint is absent of the management console
- D. The endpoint fails to receive content update
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 29
Files are blocked by hash in the blacklist policy.
Which algorithm is supported, in addition to MD5?
- A. SHA256 "salted"
- B. MD5 "Salted"
- C. SHA256
- D. SHA2
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 30
What is the frequency of feature updates with SES and the Integrated Cyber Defense Manager (ICDm)
- A. Quarterly
- B. Monthly
- C. Weekly
- D. Bi-monthly
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which Symantec component is required to enable two factor authentication with VIP on the Integrated Cyber Defense manager (ICDm)?
- A. A software token and an active directory account
- B. A physical token or a software token
- C. A software token and a VIP server
- D. A physical token or a secure USB key
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 32
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